Forcing A Quit Claim?
Q: Ex-wife continues to resist any attempts to have her sign a quit claim, so next step is back to court on 6/13/03 with a Motion to Transfer Property. Seems silly to have to go to this length. Has anyone else ever dealt with a situation when one person (respondent, probably) does not sign the decree, does not sign ANYTHING that the court approves, causing further work to have the court enter its orders?
A: In at least one court I've been in, their normal practice is to put a provision in court orders for the transfer of property that if the person refuses to sign, that the court clerk shall sign the deed as a limited attorney-in-fact. Personally, I prefer to avoid the problem altogether and just have the original judgement effect the transfer of the property by itself.