Are Sexual Harassment Laws STILL Too Vague?

Q: The Supreme Court has given two rulings which help clarify the frequently murky ground of workplace sexual harassment. Among the court's holdings was that an employee who resists a supervisor's advances need not have suffered a tangible job detriment, such as dismissal or loss of a promotion, in order to be able to pursue a lawsuit against the company. But such a suit cannot succeed, the court said, if the company has an anti-harassment policy with an effective complaint procedure in place and the employee has unreasonably failed to use it. Note that the laws are not written to favor either sex. Women can be charged as well as men. Do you think that sexual harassment laws are *still* too vague?

A: Sexual harassment can be defined in two ways. First it can be some demand of trade of sexual services for employment or promotion. This is the most obvious kind of harassment. Secondly, it can be the creation of a hostile workforce based upon gender. Here is where most of the ambiguity arises since what may seem hostile to one person (or gender) may not seem hostile to the other. Second problem is what we mean by an "effective complaint procedure". Does the procedure have to rule in the victim's favour for it to be effective? Of course not, but it must provide a reasonable way for the victim to complain and it must

provide a method of correcting the problem. Sexual harassment is just like any other law tho....it is interpreted and defined by litigation. And what about unreasonably failed to use it? In what cases can the victim reasonably fail to use the complaint procedure? Simple. A person who has been threatened if he or she uses the procedure may not be able to use it; i.e. it may not have been reasonable to expect that gal who was killed by her co-workers, after she filed a complaint. (the case was on ...2020 a long time ago, but I don't remember the names...sorry) So, it will depend on the circumstances, not unlike any other law. That's why we have the courts.